Psychology question

 

• What are sleep and meditation examples of?

  • Altered states of consciousness
  • Circadian rhythms
  • Meditation
  • Hallucinations

About This Quiz

The Psychology Questions and Answers are designed to challenge your knowledge with psychology questions and answers covering key concepts, theories, and research findings. If you are a student or someone interested in the human mind, these psychology test questions will help you assess your grasp of important topics like cognitive processes, behavior, mental disorders, and psychological experiments.

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• 2. 

  Why is sleep considered a necessary vital function?

  • Helps people recover from stress

  • Builds up a person's resistance to infection

  • Maintains the brain's proper functioning

  • All of the above

  Correct Answer
  

  A. All of the above
  Explanation
  

  Sleep is considered a necessary vital function because it helps people recover from stress by allowing the body to rest and restore energy levels. It also builds up a person's resistance to infection by supporting the immune system and promoting overall health. Additionally, sleep maintains the brain's proper functioning by allowing for memory consolidation, cognitive processing, and emotional regulation. Therefore, sleep does all of the above by fulfilling these essential roles in promoting physical and mental well-being.

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• 3. 

  What condition has biofeedback been successfully used to treat?

  • High blood pressure

  • Cancer

  • Eating disorders

  • All of the above

  Correct Answer
  

  A. High blood pressure
  Explanation
  

  Biofeedback is a technique that helps individuals gain control over certain bodily functions. It involves monitoring and providing feedback about physiological processes such as heart rate, blood pressure, and muscle tension. High blood pressure, also known as hypertension, is a condition that can be effectively managed through biofeedback. By learning to control their physiological responses, individuals can lower their blood pressure levels and reduce the risk of cardiovascular problems. Cancer and eating disorders are complex conditions that require multidisciplinary approaches for treatment, and while biofeedback may be used as a complementary therapy, it is not the primary treatment for these conditions.

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• 4. 

  What causes slurred speech, blurred vision, and impaired judgment?

  • Nicotine

  • Amphetamines

  • Cocaine

  • Alcohol

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Alcohol
  Explanation
  

  Alcohol is the correct answer because it is a central nervous system depressant that affects the brain and impairs cognitive function. Slurred speech, blurred vision, and impaired judgment are common symptoms of alcohol intoxication. Nicotine, amphetamines, and cocaine do not typically cause these specific symptoms.

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• 5. 

  What are morphine and heroin classified as?

  • Amphetamines

  • Narcotics

  • Stimulants

  • Hallucinogens

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Narcotics
  Explanation
  

  Morphine and heroin are addictive depressants that belong to the category of narcotics. Narcotics are substances that are derived from or related to opium and have strong pain-relieving properties. They work by binding to specific receptors in the brain and spinal cord, resulting in pain relief and a sense of euphoria. However, prolonged use of narcotics can lead to physical and psychological dependence, making them highly addictive.

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• 6. 

  What have amphetamines been used to do?

  • Cure addiction to morphine

  • Deaden the pain of soldiers suffering from wounds

  • Slow the activity of the nervous system

  • Help people stay awake

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Help people stay awake
  Explanation
  

  Amphetamines are stimulant drugs that can increase alertness and wakefulness. They stimulate the central nervous system, increasing the release of certain neurotransmitters in the brain, such as dopamine and norepinephrine. This increased activity can help people stay awake and alert, making them useful in treating conditions like narcolepsy or excessive daytime sleepiness. Amphetamines are not used to cure addiction to morphine, deaden pain, or slow the activity of the nervous system.

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• 7. 

  Which theory best explains why a person continues a behavior despite negative consequences due to the expectation of a future reward?

  • Classical Conditioning

  • Cognitive Dissonance Theory

  • Operant Conditioning

  • Self-Determination Theory

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Operant Conditioning
  Explanation
  

  Operant Conditioning, developed by B.F. Skinner, explains how behaviors are influenced by rewards and punishments. In this theory, a person might continue a behavior despite negative outcomes because they expect a future reward (reinforcement). This is different from Classical Conditioning, which involves learning through association, and Cognitive Dissonance, which addresses the discomfort from holding conflicting beliefs. Self-Determination Theory focuses on intrinsic motivation, not specifically on behavior despite negative consequences.

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• 8. 

  What are some long-term side effects experienced by people who have taken LSD?

  • Heart problems

  • High blood pressure

  • Memory loss

  • All of the above

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Memory loss
  Explanation
  

  People who have used LSD can experience long-term changes in perception, commonly referred to as hallucinogen persisting perception disorder (HPPD), where they have flashbacks and visual disturbances. Cognitive effects such as memory loss can also occur, although this is less common and typically associated with broader or more intense use. LSD is not specifically linked to causing heart problems or high blood pressure directly as long-term side effects. Instead, its effects are more prominently neurological and psychological.

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• 9. 

  How do maintenance programs help people addicted to drugs, and what is not included in their approach?

  • Removing all drugs from the addict

  • Giving controlled amounts of a less addictive drug

  • Reducing the amount of the narcotics an addict takes

  • Providing moral support during group talks

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Removing all drugs from the addict
  Explanation
  

  Maintenance programs help people addicted to drugs by all of the following except removing all drugs from the addict. Maintenance programs typically involve providing controlled amounts of a less addictive drug, such as methadone or buprenorphine, to reduce withdrawal symptoms and cravings. This helps the individual gradually reduce their dependence on the drug without experiencing severe withdrawal symptoms. Additionally, maintenance programs may also involve reducing the amount of narcotics the addict takes and providing moral support during group talks to address the psychological and emotional aspects of addiction. However, removing all drugs from the addict is not a typical approach in maintenance programs.

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• 10. 

  At which level of consciousness do basic biological functions, such as breathing, occur?

  • Preconscious

  • Unconscious

  • Altered state

  • Nonconscious

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Nonconscious
  Explanation
  

  Basic biological functions, such as breathing, occur at the level of nonconsciousness. Nonconsciousness refers to the state in which these functions are performed automatically, without any conscious effort or awareness. Breathing is regulated by the autonomic nervous system, which operates independently from conscious control. Therefore, it is considered a nonconscious process.

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• 11. 

  Which state is the lightest stage of sleep?

  • Stage 1

  • Stage 2

  • Stage 3

  • Stage 4

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Stage 1
  Explanation
  

  Stage 1 is the lightest stage of sleep. During this stage, the brain produces alpha and theta waves, and the person can be easily awakened. It is a transitional stage between wakefulness and sleep, and it usually lasts for a few minutes. In this stage, the person may experience muscle twitches or sudden jerks. The heart rate and breathing rate start to slow down, and the body prepares to enter deeper stages of sleep.

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• 12. 

  Which of the following statements does not describe meditation?

  • It is an altered state of consciousness.

  • It helps people relax.

  • It is an important part of many religions.

  • It is a part of hypnosis.

  Correct Answer
  

  A. It is a part of hypnosis.
  Explanation
  

  The statement "It is a part of hypnosis" does not describe meditation. While meditation and hypnosis both involve altered states of consciousness, they are distinct practices. Meditation is a self-directed practice that focuses on mindfulness, relaxation, and self-awareness, whereas hypnosis is a therapeutic technique that involves guided suggestion and deep relaxation. Therefore, the statement is incorrect as it wrongly suggests that meditation is a part of hypnosis.

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• 13. 

  Which of the following might provide relief from tension headaches?

  • Stimulants

  • Amphetamines

  • Biofeedback

  • REM sleep

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Biofeedback
  Explanation
  

  Biofeedback is a technique that helps individuals gain control over their bodily functions, such as heart rate and muscle tension, by providing them with real-time feedback. It has been found to be effective in managing tension headaches by teaching individuals to recognize and control the physical symptoms associated with the headache. By using biofeedback, individuals can learn relaxation techniques and reduce stress, which can alleviate tension headaches. Stimulants and amphetamines are not typically used for tension headache relief, and REM sleep, while important for overall health, may not specifically target tension headaches.

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• 14. 

  How are alcohol, heroin, and codeine classified?

  • Depressants

  • Hallucinogens

  • Stimulants

  • Amphetamines

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Depressants
  Explanation
  

  Alcohol, heroin, and codeine are classified as depressants because they slow down the central nervous system, resulting in decreased brain activity and a calming effect on the body. These substances can cause sedation, relaxation, and a decrease in physical and mental functions. They can also lead to drowsiness, impaired coordination, and slowed breathing.

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• 15. 

  Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with the regulation of mood, sleep, and appetite?

  • Dopamine

  • GABA

  • Serotonin

  • Acetylcholine

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Serotonin
  Explanation
  

  Serotonin is a key neurotransmitter involved in regulating mood, sleep, and appetite. Imbalances in serotonin levels are linked to mood disorders such as depression and anxiety. Unlike dopamine, which is associated with reward and motivation, or GABA, which inhibits neuronal activity, serotonin plays a crucial role in maintaining emotional stability and overall well-being.

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• 16. 

  What is the treatment for drug abuse that involves the removal of poisonous substances from the body called?

  • A maintenance program

  • Biofeedback

  • Detoxification

  • Hypnosis

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Detoxification
  Explanation
  

  Detoxification is the correct answer because it refers to the process of removing toxic substances, such as drugs, from the body. This treatment aims to cleanse the body of these harmful substances and help individuals overcome drug abuse. Detoxification can be done in various ways, including medical supervision, medication, and therapy, depending on the severity of the addiction. It is an essential step in the overall treatment process for drug abuse and plays a crucial role in preparing individuals for further rehabilitation and recovery.

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• 17. 

  What is the type of altered consciousness in which people become highly suggestible called?

  • Meditation

  • Relaxation

  • Hypnosis

  • Biofeedback

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Hypnosis
  Explanation
  

  Hypnosis is the correct answer because it is a type of altered consciousness where individuals become highly suggestible. During hypnosis, a person enters a trance-like state, allowing them to be more open to suggestions and influences. This altered state of consciousness can be induced by a trained professional, and it is often used for therapeutic purposes, such as treating phobias, addiction, or anxiety.

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• 18. 

  What did Sigmund Freud believe about dreams?

  • They are clues to the unconscious.

  • They have no purpose.

  • They can not be interpreted.

  • They help people solve problems.

  Correct Answer
  

  A. They are clues to the unconscious.
  Explanation
  

  Sigmund Freud believed that dreams are clues to the unconscious. According to Freud, dreams are a manifestation of repressed desires, fears, and unresolved conflicts that are hidden in the unconscious mind. He believed that by analyzing and interpreting dreams, one can gain insight into their innermost thoughts and emotions. Freud viewed dreams as a way for the unconscious mind to communicate with the conscious mind, providing valuable information about one's psychological state.

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• 19. 

  Which of the following occur during stage 4 sleep?

  • Sleepwalking

  • Bed-wetting

  • Sleep talking

  • All of the above

  Correct Answer
  

  A. All of the above
  Explanation
  

  During stage 4 sleep, also known as deep sleep, various physiological processes occur. Sleepwalking, bed-wetting, and sleep talking are all examples of parasomnias that can occur during this stage. Sleepwalking involves walking or performing complex behaviors while still asleep. Bed-wetting refers to involuntary urination during sleep. Sleep talking involves speaking while asleep, often incoherently. These behaviors are more likely to occur during stage 4 sleep due to the deep state of relaxation and reduced responsiveness to external stimuli.

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• 20. 

  What is the most potent hallucinogenic drug?

  • Marijuana

  • LSD

  • Mescaline

  • Peyote

  Correct Answer
  

  A. LSD
  Explanation
  

  LSD is considered the most potent hallucinogenic drug due to its high potency and ability to induce intense hallucinations and altered states of consciousness. It is synthesized from lysergic acid and has a powerful effect on the serotonin receptors in the brain, leading to profound sensory distortions, hallucinations, and changes in perception and mood. Its potency is often attributed to its ability to produce long-lasting effects even in small doses, making it a highly potent hallucinogen.

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• 21. 

  Which of the following is true of hypnosis?

  • It is similar to deep sleep.

  • The subject cannot be forced to do things against his or her will.

  • The subject becomes less responsive to internal stress.

  • It cannot be used to reduce pain.

  Correct Answer
  

  A. The subject cannot be forced to do things against his or her will.
  Explanation
  

  Hypnosis is a state of focused attention and heightened suggestibility, but it does not involve forcing the subject to do things against their will. While under hypnosis, the subject remains in control and can reject or refuse any suggestions that go against their moral or ethical beliefs. Hypnosis is a cooperative process where the subject willingly participates and can choose to accept or reject suggestions based on their own judgment.

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• 22. 

  Adults spend about _______ of their time asleep in non-REM sleep.

  • 25 percent

  • 50 percent

  • 75 percent

  • 90 percent

  Correct Answer
  

  A. 75 percent
  Explanation
  

  Adults spend about 75 percent of their time asleep in non-REM sleep. Non-REM sleep is a phase of sleep that consists of four stages, each with different characteristics. This phase is characterized by deep, restorative sleep, during which the body repairs and regenerates tissues, strengthens the immune system, and consolidates memories. On the other hand, REM sleep is the phase associated with dreaming. While REM sleep is essential for cognitive functions and emotional well-being, non-REM sleep is responsible for physical restoration and recovery. Therefore, it is expected that adults spend a significant portion of their sleep time in non-REM sleep, specifically around 75 percent.

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• 23. 

  What is the best way to describe the relationship between a hypnotist and a participant?

  • Hypnotist has total control

  • One of mutual distrust

  • One of mutual participation

  • The participant gives up control.

  Correct Answer
  

  A. One of mutual participation
  Explanation
  

  The relationship between a hypnotist and a participant is best described as one of mutual participation. This implies that both the hypnotist and the participant are actively involved in the hypnotic process. Unlike the option stating that the hypnotist has total control or that there is mutual distrust, the concept of mutual participation suggests a collaborative and cooperative dynamic between the two parties. In this type of relationship, the participant willingly engages with the hypnotist and actively contributes to the hypnotic experience.

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• 24. 

  Which of the following is not a common use of hypnosis?

  • To aid memory

  • To help people forget

  • To manage pain

  • To help people learn

  Correct Answer
  

  A. To aid memory
  Explanation
  

  Hypnosis is commonly used for various purposes such as managing pain, helping people learn, and even aiding in forgetting certain memories. However, it is not typically used to aid memory. While hypnosis can enhance recall in some cases, it is not considered a primary method for memory improvement. Other techniques like mnemonic devices or memory exercises are more commonly used for memory enhancement.

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• 25. 

  What technique is used in hypnosis to help cure an addiction?

  • A posthypnotic suggestion

  • A prehypnotic suggestion

  • Neodissociation

  • Neohypnosis

  Correct Answer
  

  A. A posthypnotic suggestion
  Explanation
  

  Using hypnosis to help cure an addiction often involves the use of a posthypnotic suggestion. This is a suggestion given during the hypnotic state that is intended to influence behavior or mindset after the hypnosis session has ended. In the context of addiction treatment, a posthypnotic suggestion could be used to reinforce positive behaviors, reduce cravings, or promote a healthier mindset towards the addiction. By utilizing posthypnotic suggestions, individuals undergoing hypnosis for addiction treatment may be better able to overcome their addiction and maintain long-term recovery.

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• 26. 

  What is the approach to meditation that focuses on using a mantra called?

  • Transcendental

  • Mindfulness

  • Breath

  • Relaxation

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Transcendental
  Explanation
  

  Transcendental meditation is a specific approach to meditation that involves the use of a mantra. In this practice, individuals repeat a specific word or phrase silently to themselves in order to achieve a state of deep relaxation and heightened awareness. This technique is distinct from mindfulness meditation, which involves focusing on the present moment without judgment, as well as breath and relaxation techniques, which may involve different methods for achieving a state of calm and relaxation.

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  5
 
• 27. 

  What substance use most commonly causes panic reactions as an unpleasant side effect?

  • Marijuana

  • LSD

  • Opium

  • Alcohol

  Correct Answer
  

  A. LSD
  Explanation
  

  Panic reactions are the most common unpleasant side effects of LSD use. LSD, also known as acid, is a hallucinogenic drug that can cause intense and unpredictable psychological effects. These effects may include panic, anxiety, and paranoia, which can be very distressing for the user. LSD alters the perception and thought processes of the individual, often leading to a loss of control and feelings of extreme fear or panic. It is important to note that the effects of LSD can vary greatly depending on the individual and the specific circumstances of use.

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• 28. 

  What is the most widely used and abused mind-altering substance in the United States?

  • Marijuana

  • LSD

  • Opium

  • Alcohol

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Alcohol
  Explanation
  

  Alcohol is the most widely used and abused mind-altering substance in the United States. This is because it is legal and easily accessible, leading to its widespread consumption. Additionally, alcohol is socially accepted and often seen as a part of social gatherings and celebrations. However, its excessive use can lead to various health issues, addiction, and negative social consequences.

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• 29. 

  From what source are narcotics derived?

  • Cannabis

  • THS

  • Opiates

  • None of the above.

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Opiates
  Explanation
  

  Narcotics are primarily derived from opiates, which come from the opium poppy plant (Papaver somniferum). These substances, including morphine, heroin, and codeine, are known for their pain-relieving and sedative effects. Opiates work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain, reducing pain perception and inducing a sense of euphoria. However, they also carry a high risk of addiction and dependence. Cannabis, though sometimes classified as a drug, is not a narcotic. THS is not a known drug-related term, and "None of the above" is incorrect because opiates are the true source of narcotics.

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• 30. 

  What proportion of adults in the United States are affected by psychological disorders?

  • Less than one-fifth of all adults

  • About one-fourth of all adults

  • Almost one-third of all adults

  • Close to half of all adults

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Almost one-third of all adults
  Explanation
  

  Almost one-third of all adults in the United States are affected by psychological disorders. This suggests that a significant portion of the adult population in the country experiences mental health issues. The prevalence of psychological disorders highlights the importance of addressing and providing support for mental health in the United States.

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• 31. 

  What is the most widely used classification system for psychological disorders?

  • Social readjustment rating scale

  • Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory

  • California Personality Inventory

  • Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders
  Explanation
  

  The correct answer is the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders. This manual is widely used in the field of psychology to classify and diagnose various psychological disorders. It provides a comprehensive framework for understanding and categorizing mental health conditions, including criteria for diagnosis and guidelines for treatment. The DSM is regularly updated to reflect advances in research and changes in understanding of mental disorders.

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• 32. 

  On what basis do psychologists determine whether a person has a psychological disorder?

  • Maladaptive behavior

  • Emotional distress

  • Social unacceptability

  • All of the above

  Correct Answer
  

  A. All of the above
  Explanation
  

  Psychologists determine whether a person has a psychological disorder based on whether his or her behavior is maladaptive, causes emotional discomfort, or is socially acceptable. These criteria are important in diagnosing psychological disorders because maladaptive behavior refers to actions that are detrimental to the individual's well-being and functioning. Emotional discomfort indicates that the behavior is causing distress or impairment in the person's emotional state. Lastly, social acceptability is considered to assess whether the behavior aligns with societal norms and expectations. Therefore, considering all three aspects helps psychologists in determining whether a person's behavior indicates a psychological disorder.

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• 33. 

  Which phobia do many people with panic disorder also experience?

  • Zoophobia

  • Claustrophobia

  • Agoraphobia

  • Arachnophobia

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Agoraphobia
  Explanation
  

  Agoraphobia is the fear of being in situations or places where escape might be difficult or embarrassing, or where help may not be available in case of a panic attack. Since panic disorder is characterized by recurrent panic attacks, it is common for individuals with panic disorder to develop agoraphobia as a result. Agoraphobia often leads to avoidance of certain places or situations, which can greatly impact a person's daily life and functioning.

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• 34. 

  What is the primary cause of dissociative amnesia?

  • A traumatic event

  • A severe head injury

  • Genetic factors

  • All of the above

  Correct Answer
  

  A. A traumatic event
  Explanation
  

  Dissociative amnesia is a condition characterized by the inability to recall important personal information, often triggered by a traumatic event. This type of amnesia is typically caused by severe psychological trauma, such as physical or sexual abuse, witnessing a violent event, or experiencing a life-threatening situation. It is believed that the brain uses dissociation as a defense mechanism to protect itself from overwhelming emotions associated with the traumatic event. Severe head injuries can also cause memory loss, but it is not specific to dissociative amnesia. Genetic factors may play a role in susceptibility to the condition, but they are not the direct cause.

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• 35. 

  What is the main characteristic of a person with dissociative identity disorder?

  • Frequent panic attacks

  • Two or more personalities

  • Impulses to commit socially unacceptable behaviors

  • Amnesia about personal imformation

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Two or more personalities
  Explanation
  

  Dissociative identity disorder (DID), formerly known as multiple personality disorder, is characterized by the presence of two or more distinct personalities within one individual. These personalities may have different names, behaviors, memories, and even physical attributes. The disorder often develops as a coping mechanism for severe trauma, usually in childhood. While memory gaps (amnesia) are common, the defining feature is the existence of multiple identities, not just forgetfulness. Panic attacks and impulses to commit socially unacceptable behaviors can occur but are not core symptoms. DID is a complex condition requiring specialized psychological treatment, including therapy and support.

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• 36. 

  Michael went missing in 1998. Two years later, he was found living in another state with a new identity and family, claiming his name was Danny. His condition is consistent with which disorder?

  • Multiple personality disorder

  • Dissociative trance disorder

  • Dissociative identity disorder

  • Dissociative fugue

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Dissociative fugue
  Explanation
  

  Dissociative fugue is a type of dissociative disorder characterized by sudden, unexpected travel away from home, accompanied by amnesia for personal identity and possible adoption of a new identity. In this case, Michael's behavior of living in another state, being married to another woman, and having children with her, while claiming a different name (Danny) suggests that he may be experiencing a dissociative fugue. This disorder involves a temporary loss of personal identity and often occurs in response to a stressful event or trauma.

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• 37. 

  What are the different identities or personalities in dissociative identity disorder called?

  • Masks

  • Faces

  • Facades

  • Alters

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Alters
  Explanation
  

  The term "alters" refers to different identities or personalities that an individual may possess. This term is commonly used in the context of dissociative identity disorder (DID), where individuals may have multiple distinct identities or alters. These alters can have their own unique characteristics, memories, and behaviors. The term "masks" typically refers to hiding one's true identity, while "faces" and "facades" generally imply a superficial or deceptive presentation of oneself. Therefore, "alters" is the most appropriate term to describe different identities or personalities.

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• 38. 

  __________ is a psychological experience characterized by concern about future events, and __________ is characterized by concern about current circumstances.

  • Panic; anxiety

  • Fear; anxiety

  • Anxiety; fear

  • Depression; anxiety

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Anxiety; fear
  Explanation
  

  Anxiety is a psychological experience characterized by concern about future events, while fear is characterized by concern about current circumstances. Anxiety is often associated with worry and unease about what may happen in the future, while fear is a response to an immediate threat or danger in the present moment. Both anxiety and fear are emotions that can be triggered by various situations and can have different levels of intensity.

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• 39. 

  Why does Marty’s fear of dogs qualify as a specific phobia rather than an everyday fear?

  • Marty's fear of dogs comes and goes.

  • Marty owns a cat but no dog.

  • Marty believes his fear of dogs is reasonable.

  • Marty will only work night shifts, a time when he thinks all dogs will be safely inside.

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Marty will only work night shifts, a time when he thinks all dogs will be safely inside.
  Explanation
  

  A specific phobia is an excessive, irrational fear that significantly interferes with a person’s daily life. Marty’s choice to only work night shifts to avoid dogs demonstrates an extreme avoidance behavior that disrupts normal functioning. In contrast, an everyday fear does not cause major life adjustments. The other options do not indicate a debilitating phobia—having a cat is irrelevant, a fear that comes and goes is not persistent enough, and believing the fear is reasonable contradicts the definition of a phobia, which is an irrational fear. Thus, Marty’s avoidance behavior confirms a specific phobia.

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• 40. 

  Which of the following is the essential characteristic of a social phobia?

  • Fear of being in public places

  • Fear of being left alone

  • Fear of evaluation by other people

  • Fear of having a panic attack

  Correct Answer
  

  A. Fear of evaluation by other people
  Explanation
  

  The essential characteristic of a social phobia is the fear of evaluation by other people. This means that individuals with social phobia are excessively worried about being judged, criticized, or humiliated by others in social situations. This fear can lead to avoidance of social interactions and can significantly impact a person's daily life and functioning.